Why is it that only the 2nd amendment leads to the conclusion that there can be no restrictions on the right it expresses, the ownership of guns? The same doesn't seem to apply to the 1st amendment. For some reason we all (I think all) agree that freedom of the press doesn't extend to publishing child pornography. Or that freedom of assembly means that the state cannot require licenses for such assemblies, in the absence of which the assemblers can be stuck in jail. And we all know about restrictions on freedom of speech, from slander at one end to "fire in a crowded theater" at the other. Religion seems to be an exception to the rule on restrictions--except of course that it's not, since there are more cases than you can shake a stick at about what is or is not constitutional exercise of religion. And what about "unreasonable" in the 4th amendment. What is an "unreasonable search" or "seizure"?
But only the 2nd amendment, ambiguous in its initial phrase as it is, is said to be immune from moves to define what it does or does not protect.
Edited by yoyo52 (03/17/1304:28 PM)
_________________________ MACTECHubi dolor ibi digitus
Xplain's use of MacNews, AppleCentral and AppleExpo are not affiliated with Apple, Inc. MacTech is a registered trademark of Xplain Corporation. AppleCentral, MacNews, Xplain, "The journal of Apple technology", Apple Expo, Explain It, MacDev, MacDev-1, THINK Reference, NetProfessional, MacTech Central, MacTech Domains, MacForge, and the MacTutorMan are trademarks or service marks of Xplain Corp. Sprocket is a registered trademark of eSprocket Corp. Other trademarks and copyrights appearing in this printing or software remain the property of their respective holders.
All contents are Copyright 1984-2010 by Xplain Corporation. All rights reserved. Theme designed by Icreon.